On the Wittes/Heller Debate over Al-Aulaqi

On the Wittes/Heller Debate over Al-Aulaqi

[John Dehn is an Assistant Professor in the Department of Law at the United States Military Academy. The views expressed in this post are his own and do not necessarily reflect those of the Department of Defense, U.S. Army, U.S. Military Academy, or any other department or agency of the U.S. government]

I agree with Kevin that not every wartime decision of our government is a judicially unreviewable political question. We can certainly debate whether the Supreme Court properly exercised jurisdiction in Hamdan, and whether the Court properly interpreted Common Article 3 of the Geneva Conventions of 1949 (my take on the latter is that it did not properly interpret the text, but effectively and properly stated customary international law). However, I do not believe that the courts determine the existence of an armed conflict or the identity of the enemy without reference to acts of Congress.

For these reasons, I believe the court must decide whether targeting al-Aulaqi is arguably within the scope of war-making authorized by the AUMF, and if so, whether the Constitution allows or requires judicial review of that determination under the circumstances. All of the legal issues Kevin mentions are ancillary to that primary question. Congress has, in effect, declared “war” on certain organizations (and even some “persons” if one reads the AUMF). The courts possess no power to review that decision, only to ensure its application consistent with any applicable domestic and international law to the extent possible, and only in cases over which the courts may properly exercise jurisdiction.

International law does not determine who may be designated an enemy by Congress. It is relevant only to determining what the executive has implied authority to do or not do when carrying out congressional war-making authorization, and then only if Congress has not spoken to the precise war measure at issue.

Congress has already authorized the use of the government’s war powers against certain groups and persons. The decision to do so is primarily vested in Congress by the Constitution according to Supreme Court case law (and may devolve to the President by congressional delegation, see the Prize Cases and others). While Congress cannot declare war on a U.S. citizen, it may authorize the use of war powers against state or non-state actors in which U.S. citizens are or may become members (see Prize Cases, Ex parte Milligan, etc.).

Congress placed no territorial limits on the AUMF, and — contrary to what Professor O’Connell often states — none is dictated by international humanitarian law such that the AUMF may be judicially limited, extraterritorially, to active war zones. Even if it somehow did, under the later-in-time rule, Congress may establish national policy in violation of international law. The Charming Betsy canon of statutory interpretation requires that the courts find Congress’s intent to do so is clear. If al-Aulaqi is within the scope of the AUMF, this requirement would appear to be satisfied. The AUMF should not be interpreted to apply or to be delimited to any specific location. There were no active war zones in which the U.S. was engaged when it was adopted. Those battlefields were created pursuant to its authority. Others may be created (even quite temporarily) if the object of those hostilities is within the scope of the AUMF.

The international law of neutrality and state responsibility is relevant to all hostilities conducted under the auspices of the AUMF. It protects only the legal interests of other nation-states, and only derivatively of their nationals. If Yemen has consented to U.S. military operations there, neutrality is not implicated. The Charming Betsy canon requires (and indeed, the Charming Betsy case itself required) the executive to respect the neutrality of other nations and their nationals without clear congressional authority (or probably ample justification under the law of nations) to violate it.

The most fundamental issues, then, become only whether al-Aulaqi’s conduct brings him within the scope of the AUMF and whether he may be targeted consistently with any relevant international laws regulating war (at least any not superseded by Congress). Kevin does not believe so under relevant international humanitarian law, and I certainly have my concerns. Contrary to what some D.C. Circuit judges think, Supreme Court case law is clear that the resort to war powers by Congress requires the application of relevant IHL by the courts. IHL delimits who or what may be targeted or subjected to other measures of war unless Congress has otherwise stated. In the day-to-day of combat, decisions on these matters are made by mid-to-low-level government agents, meaning soldiers, airmen, marines, seamen and their commanders, without prior judicial review.

The threshold question in this case is fundamentally the same as it was in Rasul and Boumediene. It is whether Congress has somehow authorized (Rasul) and the Constitution allows (meaning it does not involve a political question, there is standing, the case is ripe, etc.) — or whether the Constitution requires (Boumediene) under the circumstances of this case — judicial review of an executive war measure argued to be taken in furtherance of the AUMF. Like Boumediene, the answer to that question may turn on the very unique circumstances of this case. The same or similar factors relevant to the availability of habeas and articulated by the Court in Boumediene are probably going to be relevant to this Fifth Amendment due process question as well, assuming the case is otherwise justiciable.

By way of example, if a soldier were to encounter a U.S. citizen member of an enemy armed organized group on the battlefield, I doubt that due process demands much other than an accurate or even fairly arguable identification of that individual as either a member of that targetable group, or if a civilian, as one directly participating in the hostilities of an enemy. U.S. citizenship is probably unknown. Prior judicial review is virtually impossible and probably not constitutionally required. Post hoc judicial review is possible (perhaps in a criminal trial or Bivens case) but the measure of deference to be afforded such decisions is probably quite great. Al-Aulaqi is not this case.

I could go on, but this is enough to emphasize that the key to this whole discussion is what the AUMF allows, and what the Constitution allows or requires, in this particular case. Compliance with IHL is a secondary consideration that might somewhat inform the threshold question of the authority, propriety or necessity of judicial review, but it does not determine it. The primary issue concerns the scope of hostilities authorized by the AUMF.

For these reasons, in my opinion, Wittes is correct to assume the existence of armed conflict pursuant to the AUMF and to frame this as a targeting question. Kevin is correct to emphasize the importance of al-Aulaqi’s status under relevant international humanitarian law.

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Kevin Jon Heller

John, Thanks for the excellent post.  I agree with 97% of what you say — particularly your statement that “Congress may establish national policy in violation of international law.” As I have consistently argued, the US is free to take the position that the laws of war are irrelevant to how it is going to define armed conflict, targeting, detention, etc.  What it is not free to do is claim that it is acting consistently with the laws of war when that claim is based on an interpretation of those laws that is rejected by (nearly all of) the rest of the world. The 3%, then, is this: “The most fundamental issues, then, become only whether al-Aulaqi’s conduct brings him within the scope of the AUMF and whether he may be targeted consistently with relevant international laws regulating war.” The AUMF’s definition of armed conflict is not consistent with the laws of war.  According to those laws, there is no armed conflict between the US and al-Qaeda outside of Afghanistan and Pakistan.  How can the laws of war have anything to say about the rules of targeting in an “armed conflict” that is not, according to those laws, an armed… Read more »

Anon
Anon

“Congress placed no territorial limits on the AUMF, and — contrary to what Professor O’Connell often states — none is dictated by international humanitarian law such that the AUMF may be judicially limited, extraterritorially, to active war zones. … The AUMF should not be interpreted to apply or to be delimited to any specific location. There were no active war zones in which the U.S. was engaged when it was adopted. Those battlefields were created pursuant to its authority.” In other words, you flatly disagree with the conclusions of the ILA Use of Force Committee (and the ICRC) on this point?  [That, citing the more-lenient 2008 ICRC yardstick, in non-international armed conflict, a minimum level of intensity is needed, in a protracted armed confrontation between armed groups of some minimal organization, for an armed conflict to exist, and thus for the law of armed conflict to apply.]  Those common sense standards presuppose that more than one party is engaged in “armed confrontation.”  As I would hope everyone defining “armed conflict” – Congress included – would agree is fundamental to the existence of such a state of violence, before peacetime law and judicial process are, of necessity, superceded or suspended where… Read more »

y81
y81

What it is not free to do is claim that it is acting consistently with the laws of war when that claim is based on an interpretation of those laws that is rejected by (nearly all of) the rest of the world.

What does “not free” mean?  Does it mean that if Congress passes a statute authorizing “X” and declaring that “X” complies with international law, the statute is a nullity, whereas it would be valid if the second provision had been omitted?  That doesn’t seem right.  What if Congress authorizes “X,” the State Department declares that “X” is consistent with international law, and the majority of foreign law professors disagree with the State Department’s declaration?  Surely “X” is still the law.  So I’m having a hard time attributing any meaning at all to the statement that a nation can do “X” all it wants, but it is “not free” to claim that “X” complies with international law.

Kevin Jon Heller

y81,

I did not mean “not free” in any operative legal sense.  I meant that the US is simply wrong if it believes that its approach to the laws of war comports with how the overwhelming majority of the world’s states view those laws.  The US likes to claim that it complies with the laws of war — but what the US really means is that it complies with the laws of war as it has self-servingly (mis)interpreted them. I think it is important to keep reminding people that the US’s invocation of international law is mere rhetoric designed to obscure the fact that, in the end, the US feels constrained only by its own domestic law.
Kevin Jon Heller

John,

To clarify, by “wrongly decided” I simply meant that, according to the logic of Wittes’ argument, the legal issue in Hamdan — the nature and scope of the conflict in Afghanistan — was a political question that the Supreme Court should not have decided.  Substantively, I find the Court’s analysis flawed but the conclusion basically correct.
Howard Gilbert
Howard Gilbert

During the Revolutionary War, the British regarded the US as a non-state party. Although most of the fighting was confined to the US colonies, the US was able to project some force to previously uninvolved remote areas. We dispatched John Paul Jones to capture British ships near the Irish coast, and Benedict Arnold led an expedition to capture Montreal. Nobody has ever suggested that because we were regarded as a non-state party that a US army approaching Montreal could not be targeted for combat simply because it was far from any previous battlefield and there was no sustained combat of sufficient intensity to create an armed conflict in Canada. Rather, the general historical view has been that when the enemy sends an army to invade, you fight them off with your army and you don’t worry about whether they represent a recognized country or whether the attacking army consists of British subjects. In the past, the only reason why armed conflicts with non-state parties have tended to be geographically limited is that non-state parties have lacked the resources to project military force to distant locations. This is no longer the case. Once hostilities reach the level of intensity and duration… Read more »

Kevin Jon Heller

“Regardless of what else international law says on that point, the existence of that armed conflict from the standpoint of domestic law then triggers the observance of relevant international humanitarian law.”

I think this is a fascinating question.  My response would be that IHL applies only to conflicts that qualify as “armed conflicts” within the meaning of international law — not within the meaning of the AUMF. Differently put: the US is free to call whatever it wants an “armed conflict,” and it is also free to comply with the requirements of IHL in that conflict if it so chooses.  But that has nothing to do with IHL itself, because IHL applies only to conflicts that qualify as “armed conflicts” under the objective criteria articulated by conventional and customary international law.  As a matter of international law, therefore, the US’s actions in such conflicts continue to be governed by IHRL, not IHL.

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[…] al-Aulaki suit has precipitated an interesting discussion at Opinio Juris involving, among others, John Dehn,  Kevin Heller, and Mary Ellen O’Connell (Mary Ellen’s thoughts appear in […]

Francisco Forrest Martin
Francisco Forrest Martin

The U.S. Supreme Court has been inconsistent in regard to whether a U.S. international legal obligation can be superceded by a later Congressional act. The Supreme Court in The Schooner Exchange v. McFaddon (1812) and Macintosh v. United States (1931) said Congress could not. However, the U.S. Supreme Court has stated that Congress can in several cases in the latter part of the 19th century (beginning with the Cherokee Tobacco Case (1870)) and in Breard v. Greene (1998). Relevant to our discussion of whether Congress acting under its war powers authority can violate international law, the Supreme Court stated in dicta in Macintosh that Congress could not. As Jordan Paust and I have written about extensively, the last-in-time rule is unconstitutional on a number of grounds. See Martin, Constitution as Treaty (Cambridge Univ. Press 2007). We should be careful about accepting the last-in-time rule as settled constitutional law.

Anon
Anon

It would appear that “70% of the earth’s surface” (the high seas) is out of reach of Al Qaeda and thus off-limits for attacks on Al Qaeda, given their lack of a navy or any sea-going capacity (possible hijackings aside). That leaves 30% of the earth’s surface potentially open to attack in the name of the authorized armed conflict against terrorists declared in 2001 by the United States – the only state party in all the world to declare the unending battle against sporadic terrorist violence a “war,” despite the worldwide threat and toll of terrorism.  Or, at least, the subset of that 30% of the earth’s surface that’s outside the United States and not considered “neutral” territory, in the midst of the U.S. armed conflict that may be ongoing against those persons and organizations responsible for the attacks of 9/11 (“may be” ongoing because how would we know? – any more than our forces in Afghanistan know for sure who’s a legitimate, 9/11-connected target among those they’re shooting and bombing, given the intermingled, perhaps-one-and-the-same, civilian and “insurgent” population).  Organizations that include, presumably, Al Qaeda in its 9/11 form, but seemingly not the possibly-related post-9/11 Arabian Peninsula off-shoot in Yemen. … Read more »

Francisco Forrest Martin
Francisco Forrest Martin

Anon,

Unlike the French and British, pirates were considered enemies of all mankind under the laws of nations.  Neutrality law did not apply to pirates.  Senator Tazewell’s analogy was inappropriate. 

Anon
Anon

Francisco – I obviously disagree with your assertion that Tazewell’s analogy was inappropriate, and I think you’ll find that the majority of legislators in the U.S. House and Senate in 1825 agreed with Tazewell’s position and analogy, even as those who debated repeatedly acknowledged that pirates were the “enemies of all mankind” under the law of nations (as they had direct and personal experience and reason to know all too well).  The pirates in question, apparently like most of Al Qaeda today, were based in (or fled to) the territory of a state (specifically, its colonial possessions) formally at peace with the United States, which is what was driving much of the 1825 debate (about legislation aimed at effectively combating that piracy without committing an act of war against Spain), to which Tazewell’s comments were a compelling and apparently pivotal contribution.  Quoting from a comment I made here in August (when I excerpted parts of the same Tazewell speech and the speeches of others in the Senate and House, to provide a sampling of, and some context for, those informed and informative piracy debates): “The Senate voted, 37-10, on February 1, 1825 to strike out (as proposed by Senator Tazewell)… Read more »

Anon
Anon

[Many hours ago now, I managed to submit and thus trap in moderation here another two-link comment.  Thought I’d mention it, in case anyone’s interested in how Senator Tazewell’s principled sentiments were received in the intense Congressional debates of that piracy-plagued era.]

Nathan Wagner
Nathan Wagner

Notwithstanding the protestations of nations concerning the rights of neutrals in times of peace, in times of war sea powers have always, by blockade, search, and seizure, denied their enemies the use of neutral harbors and shipping.  See Britain’s behavior during the First World War, when the US Eastern seaboard was under effective, though undeclared, blockade.  See the US “quarantine” of Cuba during the Missile Crisis.

Perhaps the world is better for having conventions great powers feel free to disregard whenever they believe the benefits outweigh the costs.  But conventions historically honored as much in the breach as in the observance certainly lack the full moral force of universal customary practice.

Anon
Anon

“Note that the trigger has been that the neutral country is either unwilling or unable to expel or intern.  Willing and even attempting but unable still yields the right of attack.” An earlier, 1822 Congressional piracy debate was very much concerned with what was arguably “willing and even attempting but unable” efforts by the authorities of Spanish “West India” island possessions like Cuba to prevent the exploitation of their territory by pirates.  My 8/19 link above to excerpts of those piracy debates includes indications of that, and there was, as I recall from reading the broader debate then and in 1825, considerable angst expressed about what the Spanish government was or was not actively and in good faith doing to counter the problem, in response to diplomatic correspondence from the U.S. complaining of the “multiplied outrages and depredations” committed by those pirates on U.S. “seamen and commerce.” Commendably (if perhaps motivated in part by an imbalance of military power in Spain’s favor), the members of the House and Senate in 1822 voted to err on the side of respect for Spanish sovereignty, and declined to provoke Spain by any assertion of a U.S. right under the law of nations to… Read more »

Howard Gilbert
Howard Gilbert

Anon, In WWI and WWII, the British and French respected the neutrality of other European countries until they were invaded and partially conquered by the Germans. Once the German army was in Belgium, there was no remaining neutrality to respect. This is simply the most extreme example of the other side of the argument, that it is neither necessary nor proper to respect the sovereignty of a country after it has been invaded by a foreign military force that it cannot or will not expel. With regard for detention, in WWII the US detained soldiers who joined the German Wehrmacht before Pearl Harbor. Obviously they did not join at that time with the intention of fighting the US. No enemy soldier was released from custody because he originally joined the German army to fight the British, French, or even the Russians instead of the Americans. Every country engaged in a war has the authority to detain as prisoners members of the enemy armed forces no matter what their motivation for joining those armed forces. Engaging in combat with any of our co-belligerents is equivalent to engaging in combat with the US. For years al Qaeda ran what amounted to a… Read more »

Anon
Anon

With regard for detention, in WWII the US [after it entered the war] detained soldiers who joined the German Wehrmacht before Pearl Harbor. After the U.S. was at war with Germany (as we are not, and have never been, with the forces of Chechnya), and since members of the German army, easily identified by their uniforms, could be lawfully held for the duration of active hostilities, logically and legitimately so. Engaging in combat with any of our co-belligerents is equivalent to engaging in combat with the US. Who are our “co-belligerents” in the non-international armed conflict (or were our “co-belligerents” in the international armed conflict against the Taliban government of Afghanistan) covered by the 2001 AUMF?  [See, regarding non-international “co-belligerency,” Kevin’s important new post this morning.] Jose Padilla was convicted by a jury of plotting to blow up American apartment buildings and thousands of American civilians?? I take it, Howard, that you haven’t been following the revelations about the torture-derived sources of such “intelligence.” Padilla was in fact convicted by a Florida jury, after years of brutal solitary confinement in a South Carolina military brig, of the domestic peacetime crimes of conspiracy to harm persons abroad/materially aid terrorists, and of… Read more »