...it seems to me, is prevent the plaintiffs from trying to enforce the judgment in the U.S. -- and to hold them in contempt if they do. Am I missing something? Ted Folkman Kevin, If I hear you right, the issue is the
extraterritorial nature of the order. It seems to me that it's well established that because "equity operates in personam", as the hoary maxim goes, a court with personal jurisdiction over the defendant can make orders that require the defendant to act in other jurisdictions. Just to take...